Latin question about conjugations

[lgliser]

I'm just confused about conjugations. There are 4. Is it just random or is there a reason that a verb is 1st, 2nd, 3rd, or 4th?

Kind of like genders in nouns... some of them make sense but others just seem random, right?

[Tranquility7]

The conjugations are simply patterns of spelling/conjuugating (and maybe pronunciation) and have nothing to do with the meaning of the word. In my experience, there is no predicting what conjugation a word will be in based only on its meaning.

 

 

1st:  -Ä stems  (e.g., cantÄre, stem: cantÄ-)              (Imperative = CantÄ!)

2nd:  -Ä“ stems  (e.g., habÄ“re, stem: habÄ“-)              (Imperative = TacÄ“!)

3rd:  consonant stems  (e.g., pÅnere, stem: pÅn-)     (Imperative = PÅne!) (also 3rd -io is a variation of this)

4th:  -Ä« stems  (e.g., audÄ«re, stem: audÄ«-)                 (Imperative = AudÄ«!)

[Omma]

I would just add that, although both 2nd and 3rd conjugations typically end in -ere, the 2nd conjugation has both a macron over the e, as well as the first principle part ending in -eo instead of just -o (thus moneo, monere for 2nd conj. (with a macron over the middle e) vs. mitto, mittere for 3rd conj. (without a macron).  Conjugations are a way to group verbs into verb 'families', just like declensions divide nouns into noun families. Families have similar rules/patterns within themselves; hence, they are not 'random'.

 

If you know a bit of Spanish, you know that they group verbs into -ar verbs, -er verbs, and -ir verbs (as my limited knowledge tells me).  So it goes for Latin verb families or 'conjugations'.

[Alessandra]

I'm just confused about conjugations. There are 4. Is it just random or is there a reason that a verb is 1st, 2nd, 3rd, or 4th?

Kind of like genders in nouns... some of them make sense but others just seem random, right?

That is actually a fascinating question. I googled 'historical morphology of Latin' and a lot of hits led to this book.

 

https://www.amazon.com/forms-Latin-descriptive-historical-publications/dp/B0006AR6YC/ref=sr_1_1?s=books&ie=UTF8&qid=1511816893&sr=1-1&keywords=The+forms+of+Latin+Kent

 

On a related note, I know that in Greek, some verb forms that seem totally random are the result of the later language combining forms from earlier, differing dialects.

[lgliser]

 

 

 Families have similar rules/patterns within themselves; hence, they are not 'random'.

I get that families have similar rules... but it still seems random as to which ones are 1st, 2nd... etc. Like why are things like navigo, amo, aro, servo, laboro, narro... all 1st conjugations. I know they all follow the same rules but why? Those words don't really seem related or anything.

I guess I just wondered how to explain it to the kids other than, "that's just how Latin is!" 

 it still seems random as to which ones are 1st, 2nd... etc. ...

I guess I just wondered how to explain it to the kids other than, "that's just how Latin is!" 

 

You tell your kids,  "that's just how Latin is", and you just have to get to memorize them as is.  I think that some linguists have guesses as to the sources of conjugations, but no one really knows for sure.

[lgliser]

 

 

You tell your kids,  "that's just how Latin is", and you just have to get to memorize them as is.  I think that some linguists have guesses as to the sources of conjugations, but no one really knows for sure.

LOL ok! 

 

Thanks, everyone!

[Tanaqui]

Languages are random :)

 

Ancient Romans just knew which verb went in which conjugation because they sounded right when conjugated one way and sounded wrong when conjugated another way. It can be hard for English speakers to wrap our minds around because of course our language doesn't do much with inflections, but English is just as random.