Mom in High Heels Posted October 7, 2010 Share Posted October 7, 2010 We read ch. 15 of SOTW 2 today, which deals with William the Conqueror and the Battle of Hastings. One of the reasons it lists for William believing he was the rightful heir to Edward is that he was married to an English princess. I read that and though...what? Matilda (Williams wife) was the daughter of the Count of Flanders and niece of the King of France (through her mother). Does anyone know the basis for calling her an English princess? I'm really curious. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HelenNotOfTroy Posted October 7, 2010 Share Posted October 7, 2010 Wikipedia says that Matilda was a descendant of Alfred the Great. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mom in High Heels Posted October 7, 2010 Author Share Posted October 7, 2010 Wikipedia says that Matilda was a descendant of Alfred the Great. True, but 7 generations later. According to Royalist online, she was 1.5625% English. I'd hardly consider that a "princess." KWIM? I guess I just take umbrage at the wording. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hedgehogs4 Posted October 7, 2010 Share Posted October 7, 2010 but see...apparently power-hungry William didn't think it mattered...if HE considered her an "English princess" that made him eligible to snag the throne of England, see? (it's all in your perspective) :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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