## Recommended Posts

I feel so silly but we sold our Algebra I book a year ago. We have Geometry and Algebra II now but anyway we have a problem and I, neither my son, can't remember how we did this in Algebra I. So embarrassing. Can someone help us in simple plain english?

B-2 divided by B4 =

1

B6

How is this answer so? I know you subtract exponents when dividing the same base but how do you get the positive 6 with this problem?

Thanks

The mom who is now regretting the sell of her Algebra I book

##### Share on other sites

Found it for you Kysha, I was stumped too, not being a mathy person, but I remember dd doing this a couple weeks ago. I had to look it up in her book.

Your answer would be B to the -6 power. There's a rule for negative exponents that says x-a=1/xa

##### Share on other sites

Ok thanks but how did you get the negative 6? Hopefully, one question doesn't continue to lead to another. LOL

Thank you so much for helping us!

##### Share on other sites

To simplify this problem multiply both the numerator and the denominator by b^2. This will turn the numerator into '1' because b^0 =1 and the denominator into b^6. If you wanted to change the form of the original fraction so there was not a denominator you would apply the same principle--and multiply numerator and denominator by b^-4 (answer would be b^-6).

Edited by Jann in TX
##### Share on other sites

To divide fractions with like bases and any exponents you have to subtract the top exponent from the bottom, so -2-4=-2+(-4)=-6

##### Share on other sites

Thank you so much! This really helped.

## Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

Only 75 emoji are allowed.