Historical question about the Bible?

[simka2]

Does anyone know and can any tell me at what point the Bible went from being know as The Scriptures (or The Canon of Scriptures), to The Word of God?

 

I ask because I recently watched a very patient Priest having a discussion with a Pentacostal woman. This discussion went something like this: Woman: Well, the Word say's..."

Priest: "Ummm, we believe Jesus is The Word. Do you mean The Bible?"

 

She did, but then she kept referring to The Bible as the word and every time she would say it, he would very gently insert "Jesus?"

 

I then saw the Bible referred to as The Word of God on another thread, and it got me to wondering. When did the shift in title occur?

 

(Genuine question. This combines two great loves for me, History and Religion.):D

[justamouse]

Hmmm... would that be like something in the history of hermeneutics?

[Onceuponatime]

Interesting question. I'm guessing that for Christians it would have to have been some time after the canon was established. The phrase "Word of God" in the Bible obviously doesn't mean the whole Bible because it didn't exist as a unit at that time.

 

Of course most Jews would not consider the New Testament to be the Word of God. I don't think they all even believe the whole Old Testament is the "Word of God" in the same way that a Christian uses that phrase.

Edited January 12, 2012 by Onceuponatime

[tntgoodwin]

Great question! :bigear:

[milovany]

I think the Bible does reference the written Scriptures as "the word" here and there (sure, as OT in the Bible because the NT was canonized yet, but I think we can infer that it means the NT, too, now), but it references the Word being Christ (a living word) much more -- or more emphatically if that makes sense.

 

I don't know when the change occurred from it being used almost solely as the written Scriptures, though, but I'm very familiar with what you're speaking of. My guess is that it happened with the evangelical/pentecostal movements (not just the reformation); it was definitely after oral tradition was removed from the picture as a valid way of God speaking. There are other older churches that probably don't use it as strongly this way as new "Word only" movements. Again, just a guess based on my experience.

Edited January 12, 2012 by milovaný

[simka2]

I think the Bible does reference the written Scriptures as "the word" here and there (sure, as OT in the Bible because the NT was canonized yet, but I think we can infer that it means the NT, too, now), but it references the Word being Christ (a living word) much more -- or more emphatically if that makes sense.

 

I don't know when the change occurred from it being used almost solely as the written Scriptures, though, but I'm very familiar with what you're speaking of. My guess is that it happened with the evangelical/pentecostal movements (not just the reformation); it was definitely after oral tradition was removed from the picture as a valid way of God speaking. There are other older churches that probably don't use it as strongly this way as new "Word only" movements. Again, just a guess based on my experience.

 

Milovany, I cannot find it referenced anywhere. I do see a few, "word of God's," but it is the vein of....the word of God came to Malachi. It always seems to mean, "A specific word from God to a person or group of people."

 

:confused: Hmmm, I find it fascinating how words and meanings change a bit over time.:D

[dhudson]

Heb 6:5 uses the phrase "word of God" as does Acts 18:11, I Cor. 14:36 and John 10:35. It is interesting to note that these are all lower case word whereas when the Word of God is Jesus it is capitalized.

 

It seems that Paul refers to what would eventually be the NT or the teachings of Christ as the word of God.

 

Interesting question. Maybe SWB knows. She is a historian and a Biblical scholar.

[simka2]

Heb 6:5 uses the phrase "word of God" as does Acts 18:11, I Cor. 14:36 and John 10:35. It is interesting to note that these are all lower case word whereas when the Word of God is Jesus it is capitalized.

 

It seems that Paul refers to what would eventually be the NT or the teachings of Christ as the word of God.

 

Interesting question. Maybe SWB knows. She is a historian and a Biblical scholar.

 

I read through all of those verses. There are many times in the NT where the say, "the word of God." The way I read though they are talking about the message Jesus sent them to preach. I cannot find anywhere that it refers to the scriptures that way.

 

Still I wonder about the later development of referring to The Bible as the Word of God. I tried to Google the phrase and that turned up nothing. :tongue_smilie: